Welcome to the 86th FOAMed Quiz.
Eefje, Nicole, Joep and Rick
This multicentre randomized trial, published this month is about the effect of vitamin D and calcium in patients with Benign Paroxysmal Peripheral Vertigo (BPPV) in addition to standard canalith repositioning manoeuvres.
What did the authors find?
A: Vitamin D and calcium reduced the number of episodes per year
B: Vitamin D and calcium increased the number of episodes per year
C: Vitamin D and calcium had no effect on the number of episodes per year
The correct answer is A
This week, Clay Smith covered treatment of Benign Paroxysmal Peripheral Vertigo.
Otoconia, causing the otolithic membrane to be heavier than the surrounding fluid, are made of calcium crystals. Low calcium may lead to higher turnover and release of crystalline debris and therefore causing BPPV. Despite its limitations this study showed a benefit with treatment compared to the group without treatment resulting in a reduction of number of episodes.
Your 43 year old patient presents with rapidly progressive aphasia and right hemiparesis. Vital signs are unremarkable except for a fever (39.0 ℃ = 102.2 ℉). Cerebrospinal fluid PCR is positive for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV).
Which of the following statements about HSV encephalitis is true?
A: HSV-2 constitutes 90% of encephalitis in adults and children
B: Almost all patients with HSV encephalitis ultimately have seizures
C: The in hospital mortality is as high as 15 percent despite adequate treatment
D: All patients with HSV encephalitis should receive dexamethasone in addition to acyclovir
The correct answer is C
HSV encephalitis was covered on BrownEM this week.
HSV-1 accounts for 90% of encephalitis in adults and children.
Classically, we are taught to think of HSV encephalitis whenever a patient presents with altered mental status and seizures; however, only about half of patients ultimately have seizures
Nearly 20% of patients require mechanical ventilation with around 11-15% in-hospital mortality.
There is no role for dexamethasone in HSV encephalitis. Early IV acyclovir continues to be the treatment of choice.
A 56 year old patient comes in with acute and progressive vision loss on his right eye. He also complains about floaters for a few days. You decide to perform ocular ultrasound and you see the following:
You doubt whether this is a retinal detachment or a posterior vitreous detachment.
Which of the following signs make retinal detachment more likely than vitreous detachments?
A: The detachment crossing the midline (surpassing the optic disc)
B: Retinal detachment is visible in low gain (the retina is less echogenic compared to the abnormality seen in vitreous detachment)
C: Presence of vitreous hemorrhage
D: “swaying seaweed” or aftermovements (after the eye stops moving)
The correct answer is B
Core Ultrasound covered ocular ultrasound last week.
When in doubt whether you are looking at retinal detachment of posterior vitreous detachment, keep in mind that:
In retinal detachment the flap will be attached firmly to the optic nerve sheath, not crossing the midline
A retinal detachment appears ´thicker´ compared to posterior vitreous detachment.
Vitreous hemorrhage does not make retinal detachment more likely, but it can occur secondary to posterior vitreous detachment (so secondary to retinal detachment as well).
Swaying seaweed appearance (the visible membrane keep moving slowly after the eye stopped moving) makes posterior vitreous detachment more likely.
Which of the following can cause a false negative cranial CT in patients with suspected subarachnoid hematoma?
A: Severe anemia
B: Scanning less that 1 hour after start of symptoms
The correct answer is A
Justin Morgenstern covered the diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage on First10EM this week.
Sensitivity of non contrast cranial CT for subarachnoid hemorrhage is very high (although not 100%) when performed within 6 hours after start of symptoms.
One of the known causes of false negative cranial CT when evaluating for hemorrhage is severe anemia.
Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: What is the role of LP?
Your 76 year old patient presents with progressive abdominal pain. He looks ill. CT shows portal venous gas.
Which of the following is the most common cause of venous portal gas?
B: Decompression syndrome
C: Life-threatening gastrointestinal problem
D: Tension pneumothorax
The correct answer is C
Portal venous gas was covered by AliEM last week.
Hepatic portal venous gas (HPVG) is the accumulation of gas in the portal vein and its branches. It usually indicates a life-threatening gastrointestinal problem.
When HPVG is associated with bowel ischemia, there is usually transmural necrosis and a high mortality rate.
This quiz was written by Eefje Verschuuren, Nicole van Groningen and Joep Hermans
Reviewed and edited by Rick Thissen